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from my understanding did is not sufficient for "not guilty due to insanity" plea in court. what is your take on this?
im not a lawyer but also honestly as someone who's not over familiar with the concept of criminal insanity and don't know what, like, the stipulations or guidelines are. I'm also just not familiar with cases that have to do with this so I don't have an opinion really outside of "im sure there's probably at least one valid circumstance in which that makes sense for DID" but also like. I think there's probably a lot of complex problems with personhood and accountability with people who have DID
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